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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-320 Dumps(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
300-320 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which three options are benefits of using VRFs within an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplifies configuration and troubleshooting
B. enables partitioning of network resources
C. enhances security between user groups
D. provides additional redundancy at Layer 3
E. allows for routing and forwarding separation
F. improves routing protocol convergence
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3
When a Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance is configured for active/standby failover, which MAC address is used for the active unit?
A. the MAC address of the primary unit
B. the MAC address of the secondary unit
C. the virtual MAC address
D. the standby MAC address
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What feature is a benefit of using Cisco UCS blade servers for data center virtualization?
A. guest VM high availability
B. converged LAN and SAN infrastructure
C. host based etherchannel
D. built-in hypervisor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Support of vPC on the Cisco Nexus 5000 access switch enables various new design options for the data center Access layer, including which of the following?
A. The vPC peer link is not required for Access layer control traffic, and can instead be used to span VLANs across the vPC access switches
B. A single switch can associate per-interface with more than one vPC domain
C. vPC can be used on both sides of the MEC, allowing a unique 16-link EtherChannel to be built between the access and aggregation switches
D. Allows an EtherChannel between a server and a access switch while still maintaining the level of availability that is associated with dual-homing a server to two different access switches
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF statements are most relevant? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization
B. OSPF cannot filter intra-area routes
C. An ABR can only exist in two areas – the backbone and one adjacent area
D. Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area
E. The size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which three options are basic technical metrics that a good SLA includes? (Choose three.)
A. packet loss
B. devices
C. latency
D. clients
E. IP availability
F. distance
300-320 vce Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VDC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which option is a common cause of congestion found in a campus network?
A. input serialization delay
B. output serialization delay
C. Rx-queue starvation
D. Tx-queue starvation
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Seven sites are connected via OTV, what is the best practice to connect more than tree sites using OTV?
A. Filter MAC address at the join interface
B. Use multicast-enabled transport
C. Use Unicast-only transport
D. Configure one edge device for each data center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when OSPF is the data center core routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Never use passive interfaces.
B. Use NSSA areas from the core down.
C. Use totally stub areas to stop type 3 LSAs.
D. Use the lowest Ethernet interface IP address as the router ID.
E. Manipulate the reference bandwidth.
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which technology provides a layer 2 loop free and does not contain a port state named andquot;Blockingandquot;?
A. RPVST+
B. PVST+
C. MST
D. CST
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which network virtualization plane is used to separate traffic forwarding tables?
A. control
B. data
C. management
D. Access
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two options are storage topologies? (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
HSRP has been implemented on distribution switches but no priority has been defined. Which one of the two switches will be active ?
A. The one with the higher IP address configured on the interface
B. The one with the higher MAC address configured on the interface
C. The one which booted the last
D. The one with the higher bandwith configured on the interface
300-320 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which security feature can help prevent spoofed packets on the network?
A. uRPF
B. ACLs
C. DAI
D. DHCP spoofing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
An organization is deploying a new load balancing environment to support sensitive applications. The security requirements include discrete IP segments used for VIPs and for the application hosts. What load balancer mode meets the requirements?
A. router
B. bridge
C. transparent
D. pass-through
300-320 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal convergence time?
A. Portfast
B. UplinkFast
C. RPVST +
D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere solution?
A. Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on the network
B. Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine
C. Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network
D. To increase the number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

The Cisco Nexus 1000V in the VMware vSphere solution effectively creates an additional access layer in the virtualized data center network; which of the following 1000V characteristics can thedesigner take advantage of?
A. Offloads the STP requirement from the external Access layer switches
B. If upstream access switches do not support vPC or VSS the dual-homed ESX host traffic can still be distributed using virtual port channel host mode using subgroups automatically discovered through CDP
C. Allows transit traffic to be forwarded through the ESX host between VMNICs
D. Can be divided into multiple virtual device contexts for service integration, enhanced security, administrative boundaries, and flexibility of deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
With which technology can VSS be combined to achieve better performance?
A. MEC
B. NSF
C. BFD
D. UDLD
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the ASA is true?
A. The management interface is reachable only from VLAN 30.
B. The management interface is reachable only from VLAN 40.
C. It is running in transparent mode.
D. It is running in routed mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)
A. A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B. Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C. Use manual split horizon
D. Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas
300-320 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 24
NBAR is deployed on the network as part of network optimization. Which technology is critical to recognize new applications on the network?
A. PDLM
B. ACLs
C. code upgrade
D. additional licenses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What Nexus technology avoids blocking links between the access layer and the aggregation layer in a data center network design?
A. FCoE
B. LACP
C. vPC
D. FEX
300-320 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A Layer 2 switch in the network has recently started broadcasting traffic out of every port and is impacting network performance. The engineering department determines that a MAC overflow attack is the cause. Which two features can protect and mitigate the damage of the attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Storm Control
B. Port Security
C. SPAN
D. BPDU Filters
E. IP Source Guard
F. VACLs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
Which unique EIGRP feature allows for faster Layer 3 convergence?
A. fast EIGRP timers
B. feasible successors
C. hybrid routing protocol
D. Cisco proprietary protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
During the design of a new data center, a company requires that access switches be placed only in network racks. Which switch layout must be used?
A. centralized
B. integrated
C. top of rack
D. end of row
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which of the following might alert an auditor to the possibility of fraud in a division?
I. The division is not scheduled for an external audit this year.
II. Sales have increased by 10 percent.
III. A significant portion of management’s compensation is directly tied to reported net income of the division.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
300-320 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
The most common motivation for management fraud is the existence of:
A. Vices, such as a gambling habit.
B. Job dissatisfaction.
C. Financial pressures on the organization.
D. The challenge of committing the perfect crime.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following conditions is the strongest indicator of possible fraud?
A. An assistant treasurer who refuses to take vacations.
B. Independent reconciliations of subsidiary to general ledgers that are not always completed on a timely basis.
C. A condition of excess manufacturing waste material.
D. A manager who is often over budget at the end of a reporting period.
300-320 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which sampling plan requires no additional sampling once the first error is found?
A. Stratified sampling.
B. Attributes sampling.
C. Stop-or-go sampling.
D. Discovery sampling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
After partially completing an internal control review of the accounts payable department, an auditor suspects that some type of fraud has occurred. To ascertain whether the fraud is present, the best sampling approach would be to usE.
A. Simple random sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by the department during the past year.
B. Probability-proportional-to-size sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by the department during the past year.
C. Discovery sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by the department during the past year.
D. Judgmental sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by clerks who were identified by the department manager as acting suspiciously.
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: C

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